For anyone that wants to see exactly which one I'm referring to, it's on page 93 of "Casino Tournament Strategy". The example given is that we are BR1 1st to act with 600, BR2 AND BR3 have 510 and 500, two advance. Since 2 advance, I thought betting 95 would be the best but he says that betting 85 (keeping a chip more than BR2 is slightly better but why is that?? I would understand if only ONE advanced but since 2 advance, wouldn't the only goal be to have more chips than BR3? Thanks in advance. (I will probably have more questions as I'm preparing for an upcoming BJ tournament!)
The goal is to finish with more chips than at least one of them. If you bet 85, BR2 and BR3 both have to win their hands for you not to advance.
Why would I not advance if they BOTH win? What if I win too then of course I'd advance too right? The % difference is 1% but I'm still confused.
Let us take the example of the dealer getting BJ and everyone losing. If you bet 95, BR2 can bet low and keep the low, BR3 can bet big. In this case both BR2 and 3 advance. If you bet 85, you will advance regardless of how the other two bet.
You could still advance if they both win, provided they bet small enough, which is unlikely. What Colin is saying is that, with a bet of 85, unless they both win, then you have lock. With a bet of 95, you give up (a tie for) the low to BR2 and you could end up eliminated even if only BR3 wins.
