In Wongs BTS, he says a good rule of thumb when pressed for time (though not always perfect), when you are not BR1 in a tournament where 2 advance and 4 or more are still in contention is to leave the LARGEST pile of unbet chips and if you dont have enough for that, bet the max. Talking about last hand of course. Why in a tournament where 2 advance would you ever take the 1st low? Taking second low allows you to bet more and you still advance. I dont see the logic of ever taking the first low. If you leave the second highest pile of chips, you'll definately advance if everyone loses. Leaving the first highest pile of unbet chips guarantees the same thing but you bet less. Why would you bet lower when you can bet higher with no more risk of losing the advancement on the low? Where am I confused here???? Thanks, Rounder21
Pressed for time The key phrase is "good rule of thumb when pressed for time". I put the emphasis on "pressed for time". Wong is just trying to give an out if you do not have enough time to calculate the right bet. As to taking the 1st low, there is an advantage. You are competing against at least 4 contenders and you are not BR1. By taking 1st low, depending on bankrolls, you can get swung by 1 or maybe even 2 contenders but if BR1 also loses when you do, you may still advance. If you bet higher, as you suggested, BR1 will likely be the one advancing if you both lose. Of course, you can come up with tons of examples where this will not happen but again, keep in mind that this play is when you are "under the gun" and you must make a decision quickly, although, as Wong implied, it may not be the best.
Thanks toolman... guess I was reading it right, it just didnt make sense logically until you explained it. Rounder21
